The Origin of Foreknowledge

The question of “why” once again presents itself when addressing the potential of God’s foreknowledge and sovereignty. It is now worth asking once again, why are we asking why? “Why” creates the presupposition that we are in fact addressing a fact. “Why” creates the assumption that we are asking on behalf of a known truth with absolute assurance when we could very well be addressing nothing more than a multitude of false assumptions. One such assumption is this: we assume the Lord our God knew Satan was going to do what he did before it happened. We assume Jehovah knew every one of Satan’s trickeries before He began creating mankind in the Garden of Eden. And therefore, God allowed it to happen knowing full well that He would need to punish His future creation with “hell’s fire” as a result of Satan’s rebellion.

Did you know Satan is a liar? Did you know he is also “the father of lies”? (John 8:44) Who is to say Satan would communicate the truth to his eternal companion, Jehovah, in any case? Who are we to claim God can read Satan’s mind? Who are we to claim Satan would have been telling Jehovah the truth about his intentions in God’s garden?

Be honest, are we not only assuming God knew Satan’s plans in advance? If this is not an assumption, and Jehovah did in fact know Satan’s plans even before He began creating, please provide biblical evidence to support that theory; please leave a comment [37]. Did God have foreknowledge of how Satan would be “planting seeds” in His garden? If so, show us the evidence. Show us the scriptures to prove it.

What does it mean to suggest the Lord repented and felt grief for creating mankind?

And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. (Genesis 6:6)

This word “repented” (H5162; nāḥam) simply means “to be sorry” and “to make a change in one’s behaviors.” If God were in possession of foreknowledge before creation began, why did He continue creating knowing that He would be subjecting Himself to pain, heartache, and the need for repentance? Is God a masochist who loves torturing Himself? (Isaiah 53:8–10; Matthew 27:27–31)

Why would the LORD foreknowingly create the need for repentance? Aren’t we only assuming that God foresaw the existence of evil infiltrating His realm of creation?

We know for certain foreknowledge exists at this current point in time—here in this physical realm. In the physical universe that we occupy, God can see all things at once because He exists outside the axis of space and time. So yes, we know God has foreknowledge in this creation. But who is to say God also has foreknowledge in the eternal realms?

Couldn’t it be possible to suggest God only has foreknowledge in His own personal creation? Furthermore, who is to say the creator God who created us is also the sole source of creation in the eternal realms? Where is the biblical evidence to suggest God is all alone in eternity? Where in the Bible does it say God created eternity itself?


And much, much more.


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